A 53-year-old male with no relevant medical history underwent a colonoscopy that revealed two colorectal lesions. The first one, in the sigmoid colon, was a 3cm polyploid lesion, with the biopsy revealing an infiltrating adenocarcinoma. The second one was a 1.5 cm polyp just 1cm above the dentate line, which was resected piecemeal by the endoscopist, with the biopsy revealing a tubulovillous adenoma with some areas of intramucosal adenocarcinoma. The pathologist was unable to assess the margins due to the resection technique. Which would be your strategy?
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